Now there’s a whole heap of debate on coercion and understanding the difference between a patient electing an informed choice as opposed to one who simply doesn’t see themselves as ill. However, I have a niggling question about this state of denial that others may be able to shed considered thought or experience on.
In the case of someone who denies the existence of a mental illness, is it ever found to pervade to the denial of other illnesses, particularly new found medical ones?



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